Free 220-1202 Exam Dumps

Which of the following methods would make data unrecoverable but allow the drive to be repurposed?

Correct Answer:C
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A low-level format (also referred to as a zero-fill or full format) writes over every sector on a storage device, effectively destroying the existing data and making recovery nearly impossible. Unlike degaussing, which renders the drive unusable, a low-level format maintains the integrity of the device, allowing it to be repurposed or reused.
* A. Deleting partitions does not fully erase data; it only removes references in the partition table.
* B. EFS (Encrypting File System) encrypts files but does not securely wipe them.
* D. Degaussing destroys the magnetic structure of a drive, making it inoperable and not reusable.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 4.3: Given a scenario, implement basic change management best practices.
Study Guide Section: Drive sanitation methods — low-level format vs. degaussing vs. deletion
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SIMULATION
You are configuring a home network for a customer. The customer has requested the ability to access a Windows PC remotely, and needs all chat and optional functions to work in their game console.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the drop-down menus to complete the network configuration for the customer. Each option may only be used once, and not all options will be used.
Then, click the + sign to place each device in its appropriate location.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Wireless AP LAN

Firewall Screened Subnet


Solution:
The completed configuration:
* 1. Wireless AP (LAN side) 1. LAN IP: 192.168.10.1
* 2. Encryption: WPA2 PSK
* 2. Router (port-forward rule)
* 1. Allow TCP Any 3389
This forwards inbound RDP traffic (TCP/3389) from the Internet to the Windows PC, enabling Remote Desktop access.
* 3. Firewall (screened subnet side) 1. LAN IP: 10.100.0.1
* 4. Device placement
* 1. PC: place behind the router (where the port-forward rule points).
* 2. Game console: place on the Wireless AP (so it can use chat and extra services over WPA2 PSK).
* 3. Firewall: place in front of the screened subnet (with its 10.100.0.1 IP facing that subnet).
✑ The Windows PC is placed in the screened subnet (behind the firewall) for enhanced security. Remote access to this PC requires port forwarding of TCP port 3389 (RDP), which is correctly configured through the router.
✑ The Game Console is placed on the Wireless AP LAN, using WPA2 PSK for a secure wireless connection. Game consoles typically use peer-to-peer chat and online services that require open access without firewall restrictions, which is why the console is not placed behind the firewall.
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:
✑ Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with data and device security.
✑ Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to support and configure network settings.
✑ Study Guide Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 guides recommend using screened subnets (a type of DMZ) for systems needing controlled external access, such as remote desktops, while placing gaming and media devices on less restricted networks for full functionality.

Does this meet the goal?

Correct Answer:A

Which of the following describes a vulnerability that has been exploited before a patch or remediation is available?

Correct Answer:D
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A Zero-day vulnerability refers to a security flaw in software or hardware that is unknown to the vendor or has not yet been patched. If this vulnerability is exploited before the vendor has issued a fix or patch, it becomes a Zero-day exploit. These attacks are highly dangerous because they take advantage of the absence of defenses due to the lack of awareness or mitigation options.
* A. Spoofing is a form of impersonation, not necessarily tied to unpatched vulnerabilities.
* B. Brute-force attacks rely on repeatedly guessing credentials and are not related to software flaws.
* C. DoS (Denial of Service) attacks are meant to overwhelm systems and don't necessarily exploit unknown vulnerabilities.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.3: Compare and contrast common social engineering, threats, and vulnerabilities.
Study Guide Section: Threat types — Zero-day attacks, definitions, and implications

A company recently transitioned to a cloud-based productivity suite and wants to secure the environment from external threat actors. Which of the following is the most effective method?

Correct Answer:A
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Multifactor authentication (MFA) is considered one of the most effective security measures for cloud environments. It requires users to verify their identity using two or more factors (e.g., password + phone app code), making it significantly harder for external attackers to gain access, even if the primary password is compromised.
* B. Encryption is important for data protection but doesn??t prevent unauthorized logins.
* C. Backups protect against data loss but don??t stop breaches.
* D. Strong passwords are helpful but can still be phished or cracked — MFA adds a critical
extra layer. Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast authentication technologies. Study Guide Section: Cloud security best practices — MFA and access control

A company would like to deploy baseline images to new computers as they are started up on the network. Which of the following boot processes should the company use for this task?

Correct Answer:D
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) allows workstations to boot over the network and download an OS image from a server. It is ideal for automating mass deployments using
baseline images across many machines without the need for physical media.
* A. An ISO is a disk image file but requires mounting or physical media.
* B. Secure Boot is a security feature, not a method of deploying OS images.
* C. USB requires manual installation and is not suitable for automated deployment at scale. Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate Microsoft operating system installation methods.
Study Guide Section: Remote installation methods — PXE boot deployment
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